Thursday, October 8, 2009

[Sarkari-Naukri] Harish Sati, GATE - Information Technology sample paper

GATE - Information Technology

1 In a population of N families, 50% of the families have three children, 30% of the families have two children and the remaining families have one child. What is the probability that a randomly picked child belongs to a family with two children?
A) 3/23
B) 6/23
C) 3/10
D) 3/5
Answer : (B)

2 Which one of the following is NOT shared by the threads of the same process ?
A) Stack
B) Address Space
C) File Descriptor Table
D) Message Queue
Answer : (A)

3 A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. What is the maximum number of hosts that can belong to this subnet?
A) 14.
B) 30
C) 62
D) 126
Answer : (C)

4 A software organization has been assessed at SEI CMM Level 4. Which of the following does the organization need to practice beside Process Change Management and Technology Change Management in order to achieve Level 5 ?
A) Defect Detection
B) Defect Prevention
C) Defect Isolation
D) Defect Propagation
Answer : (B)
 
5 Suppose that two parties A and B wish to setup a common secret key (D-H key) between themselves using the Diffle-Hellman key exchange technique. They agree on 7 as the modulus and 3 as the primitive root. Party A chooses 2 and party B chooses 5 as their respective secrets. Their D-H key is
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer : (C)

6 We have two designs D1 and D2 for a synchronous pipeline processor. D1 has 5 pipeline stages with execution times of 3 nsec, 2 nsec, 4 nsec, 2 nsec and 3 nsec while the design D2 has 8 pipeline stages each with 2 nsec execution time. How much time can be saved using design D2 over design D1 for executing 100 instructions?
A) 214 nsec
B) 202 nsec
C) 86 nsec
D) -200 nsec
Answer : (A)

7 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a bridge
A) Bridge is a layer 2 device
B) Bridge reduces collision domain
C) Bridge is used to connect two or more LAN segments
D) Bridge reduces broadcast domain
Answer : (D)

8 What is the availability of a software with the following reliability figures?
Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) = 25 days
Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 6 hours

A) 1%
B) 24%
C) 99%
D) 99.009%
Answer : (B)

9 In a particular Unix OS, each data block is of size 1024 bytes, each node has 10 direct data block addresses and three additional addresses: one for single indirect block, one for double indirect block and one for triple indirect block. Also, each block can contain addresses for 128 blocks. Which one of the following is approximately the maximum size of a file in the file system?
A) 512 MB
B) 2 GB
C) 8 GB
D) 16 GB
Answer : (D)

10 On a TCP connection, current congestion window size is Congestion Window = 4 KB. The window size advertised by the receiver is Advertise Window = 6 KB. The last byte sent by the sender is LastByteSent = 10240 and the last byte acknowledged by the receiver is LastByteAcked = 8192. The current window size at the sender is
A) 2048 bytes
B) 4096 bytes
C) 6144 bytes
D) 8192 bytes
Answer : (B)

11 Which of the following statements is TRUE about CSMA/CD
A) IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA/CD protocol
B) Ethernet is not based on CSMA/CD protocol
C) CSMA/CD is not suitable for a high propagation delay network like satellite network
D) There is no contention in a CSMA/CD network
Answer : (C)

12 How many pulses are needed to change the contents of a 8-bit upcounter from 10101100 to 00100111 (rightmost bit is the LSB)?
A) 134
B) 133
C) 124
D) 123
Answer : (B)
1 In a population of N families, 50% of the families have three children, 30% of the families have two children and the remaining families have one child. What is the probability that a randomly picked child belongs to a family with two children?
A) 3/23
B) 6/23
C) 3/10
D) 3/5
Answer : (B)

2 Which one of the following is NOT shared by the threads of the same process ?
A) Stack
B) Address Space
C) File Descriptor Table
D) Message Queue
Answer : (A)

3 A subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. What is the maximum number of hosts that can belong to this subnet?
A) 14.
B) 30
C) 62
D) 126
Answer : (C)

4 A software organization has been assessed at SEI CMM Level 4. Which of the following does the organization need to practice beside Process Change Management and Technology Change Management in order to achieve Level 5 ?
A) Defect Detection
B) Defect Prevention
C) Defect Isolation
D) Defect Propagation
Answer : (B)
 
5 Suppose that two parties A and B wish to setup a common secret key (D-H key) between themselves using the Diffle-Hellman key exchange technique. They agree on 7 as the modulus and 3 as the primitive root. Party A chooses 2 and party B chooses 5 as their respective secrets. Their D-H key is
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer : (C)

6 We have two designs D1 and D2 for a synchronous pipeline processor. D1 has 5 pipeline stages with execution times of 3 nsec, 2 nsec, 4 nsec, 2 nsec and 3 nsec while the design D2 has 8 pipeline stages each with 2 nsec execution time. How much time can be saved using design D2 over design D1 for executing 100 instructions?
A) 214 nsec
B) 202 nsec
C) 86 nsec
D) -200 nsec
Answer : (A)

7 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a bridge
A) Bridge is a layer 2 device
B) Bridge reduces collision domain
C) Bridge is used to connect two or more LAN segments
D) Bridge reduces broadcast domain
Answer : (D)

8 What is the availability of a software with the following reliability figures?
Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) = 25 days
Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 6 hours

A) 1%
B) 24%
C) 99%
D) 99.009%
Answer : (B)

9 In a particular Unix OS, each data block is of size 1024 bytes, each node has 10 direct data block addresses and three additional addresses: one for single indirect block, one for double indirect block and one for triple indirect block. Also, each block can contain addresses for 128 blocks. Which one of the following is approximately the maximum size of a file in the file system?
A) 512 MB
B) 2 GB
C) 8 GB
D) 16 GB
Answer : (D)

10 On a TCP connection, current congestion window size is Congestion Window = 4 KB. The window size advertised by the receiver is Advertise Window = 6 KB. The last byte sent by the sender is LastByteSent = 10240 and the last byte acknowledged by the receiver is LastByteAcked = 8192. The current window size at the sender is
A) 2048 bytes
B) 4096 bytes
C) 6144 bytes
D) 8192 bytes
Answer : (B)

11 Which of the following statements is TRUE about CSMA/CD
A) IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN runs CSMA/CD protocol
B) Ethernet is not based on CSMA/CD protocol
C) CSMA/CD is not suitable for a high propagation delay network like satellite network
D) There is no contention in a CSMA/CD network
Answer : (C)

12 How many pulses are needed to change the contents of a 8-bit upcounter from 10101100 to 00100111 (rightmost bit is the LSB)?
A) 134
B) 133
C) 124
D) 123
Answer : (B)


--
with warm regards

Harish Sati
Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Maidan Garhi, New Delhi-110068

(M) + 91 - 9990646343 | (E-mail) Harish.sati@gmail.com


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[Sarkari-Naukri] Harish Sati, GATE - Electronics & Communications paper

GATE - Electronics & Communication

1 A system has poles at 0.01 Hz, 1 Hz and 80 Hz; zeros at 5 Hz, 100 Hz and 200 Hz. The approximate phase of the system-response at 20 Hz is
A) - 90°
B) 0°
C) 90°
D) - 180°
Answer : (A)
 
2 In an abrupt p-n junction, the doping concentrations on the p-side and n-side are NA = 9x 1016/cm3 and ND = 1 x 1016/cm3 respectively. The p-n junction is reverse biased and the total depletion width is 3 m m. The depletion width on the p-side is
A) 2.7 mm
B) 0.3 mm.
C) 2.25 mm
D) 0.75 mm
Answer : (B)

3 A master-slave flip-flop has the characteristic that
A) change in the input immediately reflected in the output
B) change in the output occurs when the state of the master is affected
C) change in the output occurs when the state of the slave is affected
D) both the master and the slave states are affected at the same time
Answer : (C)

4 A parallel plate air-filled capacitor has plate area of l0-4 m2 and plate separation of 10-3 m. It is connected to a 0.5 V, 3.6 GHz source. The magnitude of the displacement current is (e0 = 1/36p x 10-9 F/m)
A) 10 mA
B) 100 mA
C) 10 A
D) 1.59 mA
Answer : (A)
5 The phase velocity of an electromagnetic wave propagating in a hollow metallic rectangular waveguide in the TE10 mode is
A)equal to its group velocity
B) less than the velocity of light in free space
C) equal to the velocity of light in free space
D) greater than the velocity of light in free space
Answer : (D)

6 Noise with uniform power spectral density of N0W/Hz is passed through a filter H (w) = 2 exp(-jwtd) followed by an ideal low pass filter of bandwidth BHz. The output noise power in Watts is
A) 2N0B
B) 4N0B
C) eN0B
D) 16 N0B
Answer : (B)

7 The cascade amplifier is a multistage configuration of
A) CC-CB
B) CE-CB
C) CB-CC
D) CE-CC
Answer : (B)

8 Consider a lossless antenna with a directive gain of +6dB. If 1 mW of power is fed to it the total power radiated by the antenna will be
A) 4 mW
B) 1 mW
C) 7 mW
D) 1/4 mW
Answer : (A)

9 The bandgap of Silicon at room temperature is
A) 1.3 eV
B) 0.7 eV
C) 1.1 eV
D) 1.4 eV
Answer : (C)

10 In a PCM system, if the code word length is increased from 6 to 8 bits, the signal to quantization noise ratio improves by the factor
A) 8/6
B) 12
C) 16
D) 8
Answer : (C)

11 A device with input x(t) and output y(t) is characterized by: y(t) = x2(t). An FM signal with frequency deviation of 90 kHz and modulating signal bandwidth of 5 kHz is applied to this device. The bandwidth of the output signal is
A) 370 kHz
B) 190 kHz
C) 380kHz
D) 95kHz
Answer : (C)

12 For the polynomial P(s) = s5 + s4 + 2s3 + 2s2 + 3s + 15, the number of roots which lie in the right half of the s-plane is
A) 4
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1
Answer : (B)

13 An AM signal is detected using an envelope detector The carrier frequency and modulating signal frequency are 1 MHz and 2 kHz respectively. An appropriate value for the time constant of the envelope detector is
A) 500 msec
B) 20 msec
C) 0.2 msec
D) 1 msec
Answer : (B)

14 In a PCM system, if the code word length is increased from 6 to 8 bits, the signal to quantization noise ratio improves by the factor
A) 8/6
B) 12
C) 16
D) 8
Answer : (C)

15 Consider the following statements S1 and S2.
S1: The b of a bipolar transistor reduces if the base width is increased.
S2: The b of a bipolar transistor increases if the doping concentration in the base is increased. Which one of the following is correct?

A) S1 is FALSE and S2 is TRUE
B) Both S1 and S2 are TRUE
C) Both S1 and S2 are FALSE
D) S1 is TRUE and S2 is FALSE
Answer : (D)
1 A digital-to-analog converter with a full-scale output voltage of 3.5 V has a resolution close to 14m V. Its bit size is
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
Answer : (B)
 
2 A single-phase half-controlled rectifier is driving a separately excited dc motor. The dc motor has a back emf constant of 0.5 V/rpm. The armature current is 5 A without any ripple. The armature resistance is 2W. The converter is working from a 280 V, single phase ac source with a firing angle of 80°. Under this operating condition, the speed of the motor will be
A) 339 rpm
B) 359 rpm
C) 366 rpm
D) 386 rpm
Answer : (C)

3 In relation to the synchronous machines, which one of the following statements is false?
A) In salient pole machines, the direct-axis synchronous reactance is greater than the quadrature-axis synchronous reactance
B) The damper bars help the synchronous motor self start
C) Short circuit ratio is the ratio of the field current required to produce the rated voltage on open circuit to the rated armature current
D) The V-curve of a synchronous motor represents the variation in the armature current with field excitation, at a given output power
Answer : (C)

4 A parallel plate air-filled capacitor has plate area of l0-4 m2 and plate separation of 10-3 m. It is connected to a 0.5 V, 3.6 GHz source. The magnitude of the displacement current is (e0 = 1/36p x 10-9 F/m)
A) 10 mA
B) 100 mA
C) 10 A
D) 1.59 mA
Answer : (A)

5 The 8085 assembly language instruction that stores the content of H and L registers into the memory locations 2050H and 2051H, respectively, is
A) SPHL 2050H
B) SPHL2051H
C) SHLD 2050H
D) STAX 2050H
Answer : (C)

6 If E is the electric field intensity, Ñ(Ñ x E ) is equal to
A) E
B) | E |
C) null vector
D) zero
Answer : (D)

7 The insulation strength of an EHV transmission line is mainly governed by
A) load power factor
B) switching over-voltages
C) harmonics
D) corona
Answer : (B)

8 The Q - meter works on the principle of
A) mutual inductance
B) self inductance
C) series resonance
D) parallel resonance
Answer : (C)

9 A 800 kV transmission line is having per phase line inductance of 1.1 mH/km and per phase line capacitance of 11.68 nF/km. Ignoring the length of the line, its ideal power transfer capability in MW is
A) 1204 MW
B) 1504 MW
C) 2085 MW
D) 2606 MW
Answer : (C)

10 In a PCM system, if the code word length is increased from 6 to 8 bits, the signal to quantization noise ratio improves by the factor
A) 8/6
B) 12
C) 16
D) 8
Answer : (C)

11 At an industrial sub-station with a 4 MW load, a capacitor of 2 MVAR is installed to maintain the load power factor at 0.97 lagging. If the capacitor goes out of serivce, the load power factor becomes
A) 0.85
B) 1.00
C) 0.80 lag
D) 0.90 lag
Answer : (C)

12 The conduction loss versus device current characteristic of a power MOSFET is best approximated by
A) a parabola
B) a straight line
C) a rectangular hyperbola
D) an exponentially decaying function
Answer : (A)

13 High Voltage DC (HVDC) transmission is mainly used for
A) bulk power transmission over very long distances
B) inter-connecting two systems with the same nominal frequency
C) eliminating reactive power requirement in the operation
D) minimizing harmonics at the converter stations
Answer : (A)

14 For the equation,
s3 - 4s2+ s + 6 = 0
the number of roots in the left half of s-plane will be

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Answer : (C)

15 For the function f(x) = x2 e-x, the maximum occurs when x is equal to
A) 2
B) 1
C) 0
D) -1
Answer : (B)

1 The drain of an n-channel MOSFET is shorted to the gate so that VGS = VDS. The threshold voltage (VT) of MOSFET is 1 V. If the drain current (ID) is 1 mA for VGS = 2V, then for VGS = 3V, ID is
A) 2 mA
B) 3 mA
C) 9 mA
D) 4 mA
Answer : (D)
 
2 The first and the last critical frequency of an RC-driving point impedance function must respectively be
A) a zero and a pole
B) a zero and a zero
C) a pole and a pole
D) a pole and a zero
Answer : (D)

3 In what range should Re(s) remain so that the Laplace transform of the function e(a+2)t+5 exits?
A) Re (s) > a + 2
B) Re (s) > a + 7
C) Re (s) < 2
D) Re (s) > a + 5
Answer : (A)

4 A parallel plate air-filled capacitor has plate area of l0-4 m2 and plate separation of 10-3 m. It is connected to a 0.5 V, 3.6 GHz source. The magnitude of the displacement current is (e0 = 1/36p x 10-9 F/m)
A) 10 mA
B) 100 mA
C) 10 A
D) 1.59 mA
Answer : (A)
5 For the polynomial P(s) = s5 + s4 + 2s3 + 2s2 + 3s + 15, the number of roots which lie in the right half of the s-plane is
A) 4
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1
Answer : (B)

6 The phase velocity of an electromagnetic wave propagating in a hollow metallic rectangular waveguide in the TE10 mode is
A) equal to its group velocity
B) less than the velocity of light in free space
C) equal to the velocity of light in free space
D) greater than the velocity of light in free space
Answer : (D)

7 A device with input x(t) and output y(t) is characterized by: y(t) = x2(t). An FM signal with frequency deviation of 90 kHz and modulating signal bandwidth of 5 kHz is applied to this device. The bandwidth of the output signal is
A) 370 kHz
B) 190 kHz
C) 380kHz
D) 95kHz
Answer : (C)

8 The Q - meter works on the principle of
A) mutual inductance
B) self inductance
C) series resonance
D) parallel resonance
Answer : (C)

9 The Fourier transform of a conjugate symmetric function is always
A) imaginary
B) conjugate anti-symmetric
C) real
D) conjugate symmetric
Answer : (C)

10 An ideal op-amp is an ideal
A) voltage controlled current source
B) voltage controlled voltage source
C) current controlled current source
D) current controlled voltage source
Answer : (B)
 
Q-1 A circuit has a resistance of 11 W, a coil of inductive reactance 120 W, and a capacitor with a 120-W reactance, all connected in series with a 110-V, 60-Hz power source. What is the potential difference across each circuit element?

A) (a) VR = 110 V, (b) VL = VC = 1.2 Kv
B) (a) VR = 120 V, (b) VL = VC = 2.4 kV
C) (a) VR = 4.8 V, (b) VL = VC = 0 kV
D) (a) VR = 5.0 V, (b) VL = VC = 8.0 V

Q-2 Applying DeMorgan's theorem to the expression , we get

A) (A+B)+C
B) A(B + C)
C) Both A & B
D) None of above

 

Q-3 Refer Below figure to Determine the resonant frequency…

A) 123.4 kHz
B) 61.7 kHz
C) 45.97 kHz
D) 23.1 kHz

Q-4 Express the decimal number 57 in binary.

 A) 100101
B) 111010
C) 110010
D) 111001

 

Q-5 A vertical electric dipole antenna

a) radiates uniformly in all directions.
b) radiates uniformly in all horizontal directions, but more strongly in the vertical direction.
c) radiates most strongly and uniformly in the horizontal directions
d) does not radiate in the horizontal directions

Q-6 A particle oscillates according to the equation y=5.0 cos 23 t, where y is in centimeters. Find its frequency of oscillation and its position at t=0.15 s.

a) f = 23 Hz, y = -4.8 cm
B) f = 3.7 Hz, y = -5.0 cm
C) f = 3.7 Hz, y = -4.8 cm
D) f = 3.7 Hz, y = +4.8 cm

Q-7 A 10.0-µF capacitor is in series with a 40.0-W resistance, and the combination is connected to a 110-V, 60.0-Hz line. Calculate (a) the capacitive reactance, (b) the impedance of the circuit, (c) the current in the circuit, (d) the phase angle between current and supply voltage

A) (a) 0.0038W (b) 305W (c) 0.415 A (d) voltage lags by 8.58°
B) (a) 266W (b) 269W (c) 0.409 A (d) voltage lags by 81.4°
C) (a) 16 kW (b) 72 kW (c) 2.75 A (d) voltage lags by 6.63°
D) (a) 2.6 kW (b) 262W (c) 0.256 MA (d) voltage leads by 81.4°

Q-8 A circuit has a resistance of 11 W, a coil of inductive reactance 120 W, and a capacitor with a 120-W reactance, all connected in series with a 110-V, 60-Hz power source. What is the potential difference across each circuit element?

A) (a) VR = 110 V, (b) VL = VC = 1.2 Kv
B) (a) VR = 120 V, (b) VL = VC = 2.4 kV
C) (a) VR = 4.8 V, (b) VL = VC = 0 kV
D) (a) VR = 5.0 V, (b) VL = VC = 8.0 V

Q-9 What is the primary function of multiplexing?

A ) To match the frequency range of a signal to a particular channel.
B ) To reduce the bandwidth of a signal.
C ) To select one radio channel from a wide range of transmitted channels.
D ) To allow a number of signals to make use of a single communications channel.

Q-10 A second step to further increase system capacity is a digital access method called TDMA (Time Division Multiple Access). Using the same frequency channelization and reuse as FDMA analog but adding a time sharing element, the effective capacity is:

A) Doubled
B) Tripled
C) Reduced by one third
D) Unchanged

Q-11 What are Pseudo-Random noise sequences, or P/N Sequences?

A) P/N Sequences are known sequences which exhibit the properties or chracteristics of random sequences
B) P/N Sequences can be used to logically isolate users on the same physical (frequency) channel
C) P/N Sequences appear as random noise to everyone else, except to the transmitter and intended receiver
D) All of the above

Q-12 An op-amp integrator has a square-wave input. The output should be

A ) a sine wave.
B) a triangle wave
C) a square wave.
D) pure DC.

Q-13 What is the relationship between the series and parallel resonant frequencies of a quartz crystal?

A) They are equal.
B) Parallel resonant frequency is approximately 1 kHz higher than series resonant frequency
C) Series resonant frequency is approximately 1 kHz higher than parallel resonant frequency.
D) none of the above

Q-14 Refer Below figure to Determine the resonant frequency…

A) 123.4 kHz
B) 61.7 kHz
C) 45.97 kHz
D) 23.1 kHz

Q-15 Which FET amplifier(s) has (have) a phase inversion between input and output signals?

A) common-gate
B) common-drain
C) common-source
D) all of the above


--
with warm regards

Harish Sati
Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Maidan Garhi, New Delhi-110068

(M) + 91 - 9990646343 | (E-mail) Harish.sati@gmail.com

 

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[Sarkari-Naukri] Harish Sati, GATE - computer science engineering sample paper

GATE - Computer Science Engineering Sample Paper

1 The order of an internal node in a B+ tree index is the maximum number of children it can have. Suppose that a child pointer takes 6 bytes, the search field value takes 14 bytes, and the block size is 512 bytes. What is the order of the internal node?
A) 24
B) 25
C) 26
D) 27
Answer : (C)
 
2 The Boolean function x, y, + xy + x, y
A) x, + y,
B) x + y
C) x + y,
D) x, + y
Answer : (D)

3 In an MxN matrix such that all non-zero entries are covered in a rows and b columns. Then the maximum number of non-zero entries, such that no two are on the same row or column, is
A) £ a + b
B) £ max {a, b}
C) £ min {M-a, N-b}
D) £ min {a, b}
Answer : (A)

4 The relation scheme Student Performance (name, courseNo, rollNo, grade) has the following functional dependencies:
A) name, courseNo -> grade
B) rollNo, courseNo -> grade
C) name -> rollNo
D) rollNo -> name
The highest normal form of this relation scheme is
Answer : (A)
5 The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by
A) the instruction set architecture
B) page size
C) physical memory size
D) number of processes in memory
Answer : (D)

6 Let G be a simple graph with 20 vertices and 100 edges. The size of the minimum vertex cover of G is 8. Then, the size of the maximum independent set of G is
A) 12
B) 8
C) Less than 8
D) More than 12
Answer : (A)

7 What does the following algorithm approximate? (Assume m > 1, Î > 0).
x = m;
y-i;
while (x - y > Î)
{ x = (x + y) / 2 ;
y = m/x ;
}
print (x) ;

A) log m
B) m2
C) m1/2
D) m1/3
Answer : (C)

8 Consider the following C program
main ()
{ int x, y, m, n ;
scanf ("%d %d", &x, &y);
/ * Assume x > 0 and y > 0 * /
m = x; n = y ;
while ( m ! = n)
{ if (m > n)
m = m — n;
else
n = n - m ; }
printf("%d",n); }
The program computes

A) x + y, using repeated subtraction
B) x mod y using repeated subtraction
C) the greatest common divisor of x and y
D) the least common multiple of x and y
Answer : (C)

9 The best data structure to check whether an arithmetic expression has balanced parentheses is a
A) queue
B) stack
C) tree
D) list
Answer : (B)

10 A Priority-Queue is implemented as a Max-Heap. Initially, it has 5 elements. The level-order traversal of the heap is given below: 10, 8,5,3,2 Two new elements 1 and 7 are inserted in the heap in that order. The level-order traversal of the heap after the insertion of the elements is
A) 10,8,7,5,3,2,1
B) 10,8,7,2,3,1,5
C) 10,8,7,1,2,3,5
D) 10,8,7,3,2,1,5
Answer : (D)

11 An organization has a class B network and wishes to form subnets for 64 departments. The subnet mask would be
A) 255.255.0.0
B) 255.255.64.0
C) 255.255.128.0
D) 255.255.252.0
Answer : (D)

12 Suppose the round trip propagation delay for a 10 Mbps Ethernet having 48-bit jamming signal is 46.4 ms. The minimum frame size is:
A) 94
B) 416
C) 464
D) 512
Answer : (C)

13 The following numbers are inserted into an empty binary search tree in the given order: 10, 1, 3, 5, 15, 12, 16. What is the height of the binary search tree (the height is the maximum distance of a leaf node from the root)?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
Answer : (B)

14 Consider the following C function:
int f (int n)
{ static int i = 1;
if (n >= 5) return n;
n = n + i;
i ++;
return f (n);
}
The value returned by f(1) is

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Answer : (C)

15 The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a virtual memory environment is determined by
A) the instruction set architecture
B) page size
C) physical memory size
D) number of processes in memory
Answer : (D)
1 The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used for
A) Finding the IP address from the DNS
B) Finding the IP address of the default gateway
C) Finding the IP address that corresponds to a MAC address
D) Finding the MAC address that corresponds to an IP address
Answer : (D)
 
2 Consider the following relation schema pertaining to a students database:
Student (rollno, name, address)
Enroll (rollno, courseno, coursename)
where the primary keys are shown underlined. The number of tuples in the Student and Enroll tables are 120 and 8 respectively. What are the maximum and minimum number of tuples that can be present in (Student * Enroll), where '*'denotes natural join?

A) 8, 8
B) 120, 8
C) 960, 8
D) 960, 120
Answer : (C)

3 Consider a direct mapped cache of size 32 KB with block size 32 bytes. The CPU generates 32 bit addresses. The number of bits needed for cache indexing and the number of tag bits are respectively
A) 10, 17
B) 10, 22
C) 15, 17
D) 5, 17
Answer : (A)

4 The goal of structured programming is to
A) have well indented programs
B) be able to infer the flow of control from the compiled code
C) be able to infer the flow of control from the program text
D) avoid the use of GOTO statements
Answer : (C)
5 The tightest lower bound on the number of comparisons, in the worst ease, for comparison-based sorting is of the order of
A) n
B) n 2
C) n log n
D) n log2 n
Answer : (B)

6 Let G be a simple graph with 20 vertices and 100 edges. The size of the minimum vertex cover of G is 8. Then, the size of the maximum independent set of G is
A) 12
B) 8
C) Less than 8
D) More than 12
Answer : (A)

7 WA and B are the only two stations on an Ethernet. Each has a steady queue of frames to send. Both A and B attempt to transmit a frame, collide, and A wins the first backoff race. At the end of this successful transmission by A, both A and B attempt to transmit and collide. The probability that A wins the second backoff race is
A) 0.5
B) 0.625
C) 0.75
D) 1.0
Answer : (A)

8 Let A be a sequence of 8 distinct integers sorted in ascending order. How many distinct pairs of sequences, B and C are there such that (i) each is sorted in ascending order, (ii) B has 5 and C has 3 elements, and (iii) the result of merging B and C gives A?
A) 2
B) 30
C) 56
D) 256
Answer : (D)

9 In a network of LANs connected by bridges, packets are sent from one LAN to another through intermediate bridges. Since more than one path may exist between two LANs, packets may have to be routed through multiple bridges.
Why is the spanning tree algorithm used for bridge-routing?

A) For shortest path routing between LANs
B) For avoiding loops in the routing paths
C) For fault tolerance
D) For minimizing collisions
Answer : (B)

10 A Priority-Queue is implemented as a Max-Heap. Initially, it has 5 elements. The level-order traversal of the heap is given below: 10, 8,5,3,2 Two new elements 1 and 7 are inserted in the heap in that order. The level-order traversal of the heap after the insertion of the elements is
A) 10,8,7,5,3,2,1
B) 10,8,7,2,3,1,5
C) 10,8,7,1,2,3,5
D) 10,8,7,3,2,1,5
Answer : (D)

11 An organization has a class B network and wishes to form subnets for 64 departments. The subnet mask would be
A) 255.255.0.0
B) 255.255.64.0
C) 255.255.128.0
D) 255.255.252.0
Answer : (D)

12 Suppose the round trip propagation delay for a 10 Mbps Ethernet having 48-bit jamming signal is 46.4 ms. The minimum frame size is:
A) 94
B) 416
C) 464
D) 512
Answer : (C)

1 The problems 3-SAT and 2-SAT are
A) both in P
B) both NP-complete
C) NP-complete and in P respectively
D) undecidable and NP-complete respectively
Answer : (C)
 
2 Consider the following relation schema pertaining to a students database:
Student (rollno, name, address)
Enroll (rollno, courseno, coursename)
where the primary keys are shown underlined. The number of tuples in the Student and Enroll tables are 120 and 8 respectively. What are the maximum and minimum number of tuples that can be present in (Student * Enroll), where '*'denotes natural join?

A) 8, 8
B) 120, 8
C) 960, 8
D) 960, 120
Answer : (C)

3 Consider a relation scheme R = (A, B, C, D, E, H) on which the following functional dependencies hold : (A -> B, BC -> D, E -> C, D -> A). What are the candidate keys of R?
A) AE, BE
B) AE, BE, DE
C) AEH, BEH, BCH
D) AEH, BEH, DEH
Answer : (D)

4 The goal of structured programming is to
A) have well indented programs
B) be able to infer the flow of control from the compiled code
C) be able to infer the flow of control from the program text
D) avoid the use of GOTO statements
Answer : (C)
5 The tightest lower bound on the number of comparisons, in the worst ease, for comparison-based sorting is of the order of
A) n
B) n 2
C) n log n
D) n log2 n
Answer : (B)

6 A circuit outputs a digit in the form of 4 bits. 0 is represented by 0000,1 by 0001,..., 9 by 1001. A combinational circuit is to be designed which takes these 4 bits as input and outputs 1 if the digit ³ 5, and 0 otherwise. If only AND, OR and NOT gates may be used, what is the minimum number of gates required
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer : (C)

7 WA and B are the only two stations on an Ethernet. Each has a steady queue of frames to send. Both A and B attempt to transmit a frame, collide, and A wins the first backoff race. At the end of this successful transmission by A, both A and B attempt to transmit and collide. The probability that A wins the second backoff race is
A) 0.5
B) 0.625
C) 0.75
D) 1.0
Answer : (A)

8 If 73x (in base-x number system) is equal to 54y (in base-y number system), the possible values of x and y are
A) 8, 16
B) 10, 12
C) 9, 13
D) 8, 11
Answer : (D)

9 In a packet switching network, packets are routed from source to destination along a single path having two intermediate nodes. If the message size is 24 bytes and each packet contains a header of 3 bytes, then the optimum packet size is
A) 4
B) 6
C) 7
D) 9
Answer : (D)

10 A Priority-Queue is implemented as a Max-Heap. Initially, it has 5 elements. The level-order traversal of the heap is given below: 10, 8,5,3,2 Two new elements 1 and 7 are inserted in the heap in that order. The level-order traversal of the heap after the insertion of the elements is
A) 10,8,7,5,3,2,1
B) 10,8,7,2,3,1,5
C) 10,8,7,1,2,3,5
D) 10,8,7,3,2,1,5
Answer : (D)

11 Consider an operating system capable of loading and executing a single sequential user process at a time. The disk head scheduling algorithm used is First Come First Served (FCFS). If FCFS is replaced by Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF), claimed by the vendor to give 50% better benchmark results, what is the expected improvement in the I/O performance of user programs ?
A) 50%
B) 40%
C) 25%br> D) 0%
Answer : (D)

12 How many distinct binary search trees can be created out of 4 distinct keys?
A) 5
B) 14
C) 24
D) 42
Answer : (B)
 

Q-1 Select the one true statement. A) Every binary tree is either complete or full.
B) Every complete binary tree is also a full binary tree.
C) Every full binary tree is also a complete binary tree
D) No binary tree is both complete and full.

 

Q-2 Which data structure has the fastest insertion procedure? A) Binary search tree
B) Ordered array
C) Heap
D) Unordered linked list
E) Ordered linked list

Q-3 What are the complexities of the insert, remove and search methods of a binary search tree in the worst case? A) insert is O(n), remove is O(n), search is O(n)
B) insert is O(log n), remove is O(log n), search is O(n)
C) insert is O(log n), remove is O(log n), search is O(log n)
D) insert is O(log n), remove is O(log n), search is O(1)
E) These methods can't be defined on a binary search tree

Q-4  This Ethernet frame type is characterized by its use of the code AA in the SAP fields. A) Ethernet II
B) Ethernet RAW
C) Ethernet 802.2
D) Ethernet SNAP

Q-5  Which of the following are examples of routed protocols? (Choose all that apply) A) IP
B) IPX
C) RIP
D) OSPF
E) AppleTalk

Q-6  If switches are used to replace hubs on a network, which of the following statements is true? A) The number of broadcast domains will decrease
B) The number of collision domains will increase
C) The number of collision domains will decrease
D) The number of broadcast domains will be zero

Q-7  Full duplex Ethernet communication is only possible when:

A. Systems are connected to same LAN segments
B. Systems are connected to a bridged ports
C. Systems are connected to their own switch port
D. Systems are running over a fiber optic connection

Q-8 SQL is the combination of

A ) DDL and DQL
B ) DDL , DML and DQL
C ) DDL,DML,DQL and DCL
D ) None of these

Q-9 Which of the following applications may use a stack?

A) A parentheses balancing program.
B) Keeping track of local variables at run time.
C) Syntax analyzer for a compiler.
D) All of the above

Q -10 Consider the implementation of the Stack using a partially-filled array. What goes wrong if we try to store the top of the Stack at location [0] and the bottom of the Stack at the last used position of the array?

A) Both peek and pop would require linear time.
B) Both push and pop would require linear time.
C) The Stack could not be used to check balanced parentheses.
D) The Stack could not be used to evaluate postfix expressions.
 


--
with warm regards

Harish Sati
Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Maidan Garhi, New Delhi-110068

(M) + 91 - 9990646343 | (E-mail) Harish.sati@gmail.com

 


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[Sarkari-Naukri] GK, CURRENT AFFIARE IN HINDI

PLZ GIVE ME SIDE OF GK, CURRENT AFFAIR IN HINDI  FOR TEACHERING EXP AND OTHER PLZ  HELP ME
 
SURESH
 

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[Sarkari-Naukri] Regarding IAS

 
Dear All,
 
Plz provide me the required information regarding the preparation of IAS, Useful links, online papers, book material and any other related material..
 
 
 
Thanks
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[Sarkari-Naukri] Harish Sati, GATE Mechnical Engineering sample papers solved

GATE - Mechnical Engineering Sample Paper

1 In PERT analysis a critical activity has
A) maximum Float
B) zero Float
C) maximum Cost
D) minimum Cost
Answer : (B)

2 Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its chemical formula is
A) CH C1 F2
B) C2 C13 F3
C) C2 C12 F4
D) C2 H2 F4
Answer : (D)

3 A solid cylinder (surface 2) is located at the centre of a hollow sphere (surface 1). The diameter of the sphere is 1m, while the cylinder has a diameter and length of 0.5 m each. The radiation configuration factor F11 is
A) 0.375
B) 0.625
C) 0.75
D) 1
Answer : (C)

4 For a fluid flow through a divergent pipe of length L having inlet and outlet radii of R1 and R2 respectively and a constant flow rate of Q, assuming the velocity to be axial and uniform at any cross-section, the acceleration at the exit is
A) 2Q(R1 - R2) p LR23
B) 2Q2 (R1 - R2) p LR23
C) 2Q2 (R1 - R2) p2LR25
D) 2Q2 (R2 - R1) p2LR25
Answer : (C)
A D V E R T I S E M E N T
5 An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2/s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. If the top plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 m/s while the bottom one is held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocity profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is
A) 0.651 x 10-3
B) 0.651
C) 6.51
D) 0.651 x 103
Answer : (B)

6 The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5,5) to (10,10) while performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10,5). Which one of the following NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?
A) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
B) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
D) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Answer : (D)

7 During a Morse test on a 4 cylinder engine, the following measurements of brake power were taken at constant speed.
All cylinders firing 3037 kW
Number 1 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 2 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 3 cylinder not firing 2100 kW
Number 4 cylinder not firing 2098 kW
The mechanical efficiency of the engine is
A) 91.53%
B) 85.07%
C) 81.07%
D) 61.22%
Answer : (C)

8 In terms of theoretical stress concentration factor (Kt) and fatigue stress concentration factor (Kf ), the notch sensitivity 'q' is expressed as
A) (Kf -1) (Kt -1)
B) (Kf -1) (Kt +1)
C) (Kt -1) (Kf -1)
D) (Kf +1) (Kt +1)
Answer : (A)

9 Starting from x0 = 1, one step of Newton-Raphson method in solving the equation x3 + 3x -7 = 0 gives the next value (x1) as
A) x1 = 0.5
B) x1= 1.406
C) x1= 1.5
D) x1 = 2
Answer : (C)

10 A maintenance service facility has Poisson arrival rates, negative exponential service time and operates on a 'first come first served' queue discipline. Break downs occur on an average of 3 per day with a range of zero to eight. The maintenance crew can service an average of 6 machines per day with a range of zero to seven. The mean waiting time for an item to be serviced would be
A) 16 day
B) 13 day
C) 1 day
D) 3 days
Answer : (A)

11 The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at
A) 103 cycles
B) 104 cycles
C) 106 cycles
D) 109 cycles
Answer : (C)

12 In a rolling process, sheet of 25 mm thickness is rolled to 20 mm thickness. Roll is of diameter 600 mm and it rotates at 100 rpm. The roll strip contact length will be
A) 5 mm
B) 39 mm
C) 78mm
D) 120mm
Answer : (A)

13 Water at 42°C is sprayed into a stream of air at atmospheric pressure, dry bulb temperature of 40°C and a wet bulb temperature of 20°C. The air leaving the spray humidifier is not saturated. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Air gets cooled and humidified
B) Air gets heated and humidified
C) Air gets heated and dehumidified
D) Air gets cooled and dehumidified
Answer : (B)

14 The angle between two unit-magnitude coplanar vectors P(0.866, 0.500,0) and Q(0.259, 0.966,0) will be
A) 0°
B) -30°
C) 45°
D) 60°
Answer : (C)

15 A lot has 10% defective items. Ten items are chosen randomly from this lot. The probability that exactly 2 of the chosen items are defective is
A) 0.0036
B) 0.1937
C) 0.2234
D) 0.3874
Answer : (B)
1 Stokes theorem connects
A) a line integral and a surface integral
B) a surface integral and a volume integral
C) a line integral and a volume integral
D) gradient of a function and its surface integral
Answer : (A)

2 A solar collector receiving solar radiation at the rate of 0.6 k W/m2 transforms it to the internal energy of a fluid at an overall efficiency of 50%. The fluid heated to 350 K is used to run a heat engine which rejects heat at 313 K. If the heat engine is to deliver 2.5 kW power, the minimum area of the solar collector required would be
A) 8.33m2
B) 16.66m2
C) 39.68m2
D) 79.36m2
Answer : (D)

3 When the temperature of a solid metal increases,
A) strength of the metal decreaes but ductility increases
B) both strength and ductility of the metal decrease
C) both strength and ductility of the metal increase
D) strength of the metal increases but ductility decreases
Answer : (A)

4 A company produces two types of toys: P and Q. Production time of Q is twice that of P and the company has a maximum of 2000 time units per day. The supply of raw material is just sufficient to produce 1500 toys (of any type) per day. Toy type Q requires an electric switch which is available @ 600 pieces per day only. The company makes a profit of Rs. 3 and Rs. 5 on type P and Q respectively. For maximization of profits, the daily production quantities of P and Q toys should respectively be
A) 100, 500
B) 500, 1000
C) 800, 600
D) 1000, 1000
Answer : (C)
A D V E R T I S E M E N T
5 A spherical thermocouple junction of diameter 0.706 mm is to be used for the measurement of temperature of a gas stream. The convective heat transfer co-efficient on the bead surface is 400 W/m2K. Thermophysical properties of thermocouple material are k = 20 W/mK, C = 400 J/kg K and r = 8500 kg/m3. If the thermocouple initially tot 30°C is placed in a hot stream of 300°C, the time taken by the bead to reach 298°C, is
A) 2.35 s
B) 4.9 s
C) 14.7 s
D) 29.4 s
Answer : (B)

6 In a spring-mass system, the mass is 0.1 kg and the stiffness of the spring is 1 kN/m. By introducing a damper, the frequency of oscillation is found to be 90% of the original value. What is the damping coefficient of the damper?
A) 1.2 N.s/m
B) 3.4 N.s/m
C) 8.7 N.s/m
D) 12.0 N.s/m
Answer : (C)

7 In a machining operation, doubling the cutting speed reduces the tool life to 1/8 of the original value. The exponent n in Taylor
A) 1/8
B) 1/4
C) 1/3
D) 1/2
Answer : (C)

8 In a rolling process, sheet of 25 mm thickness is rolled to 20 mm thickness. Roll is of diameter 600 mm and it rotates at 100 rpm. The roll strip contact length will be
A) 5 mm
B) 39 mm
C) 78 mm
D) 120 mm
Answer : (A)

9 A soldering operation was work-sampled over two days (16 hours) during which an employee soldered 108 joints. Actual working time was 90% of the total time and the performance rating was estimated to be 120 percent. If the contract provides allowance of 20 percent of the total time available, the standard time for the operation would be
A) 8 min
B) 8.9 min
C) 10 min
D) 12 min
Answer : (D)

10 A welding operation is time-studied during which an operator was pace-rated as 120%. The operator took, on an average, 8 minutes for producing the weld-joint. If a total of 10% allowances are allowed for this operation, the expected standard production rate of the weld-joint (in units per 8 hour day) is
A) 45
B) 50
C) 55
D) 60
Answer : (A)

11 In PERT analysis a critical activity has
A) maximum Float
B) zero Float
C) maximum Cost
D) minimum Cost
Answer : (B)

12 Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its chemical formula is
A) CH C1 F2
B) C2 C13 F3
C) C2 C12 F4
D) C2 H2 F4
Answer : (D)

1 During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool motion will be
A) circular Interpolation — clockwise
B) circular Interpolation — counterclockwise
C) linear Interpolation
D) rapid feed
Answer : (A)

2 A component can be produced by any of the four processes I, II, III and IV. Process I has a fixed cost ofRs. 20 and variable cost of Rs. 3 per piece. Process II has a fixed cost Rs. 50 and variable cost of Re. 1 per piece. Process III has a fixed cost of Rs. 40 and variable cost of Rs. 2 per piece. Process IV has a fixed cost of Rs. 10 and variable cost of Rs. 4 per piece. If the company wishes to produce 100 pieces of the component, from economic point of view it should choose
A) Process I
B) Process II
C) Process III
D) Process IV
Answer : (B)

3 In an interchangeable assembly, shafts of size 25.000+0.040mm mate with holes of size 25.000+0.020 mm. The maximum possible clearance in the assembly will be
A) 10 microns
B) 20 microns
C) 30 microns
D) 60 microns
Answer : (D)
 
A D V E R T I S E M E N T
4 A company has two factories S1, S2 and two warehouses D1, D2. The supplies from S1 and S2 are 50 and 40 units respectively. Warehouse D1 requires a minimum of 20 units and a maximum of 40 units. Warehouse D2 requires a minimum of 20 units and, over and above, it can take as much as can be supplied. A balanced transportation problem is to be formulated for the above situation. The number of supply points, the number of demand points, and the total supply (or total demand) in the balanced transportation problem respectively are
A) 2, 4, 90
B) 2, 4, 110
C) 3, 4, 90
D) 3, 4, 110
Answer : (C)

5 An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2/s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. If the top plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 m/s while the bottom one is held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocity profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is
A) 0.651 x 10-3
B) 0.651
C) 6.51
D) 0.651 x 103
Answer : (B)

6 The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5,5) to (10,10) while performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10,5). Which one of the following NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?
A) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
B) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
D) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Answer : (D)

7 During a Morse test on a 4 cylinder engine, the following measurements of brake power were taken at constant speed.
All cylinders firing 3037 kW
Number 1 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 2 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 3 cylinder not firing 2100 kW
Number 4 cylinder not firing 2098 kW
The mechanical efficiency of the engine is
A) 91.53%
B) 85.07%
C) 81.07%
D) 61.22%
Answer : (C)

8 In terms of theoretical stress concentration factor (Kt) and fatigue stress concentration factor (Kf ), the notch sensitivity 'q' is expressed as
A) (Kf -1) (Kt -1)
B) (Kf -1) (Kt +1)
C) (Kt -1) (Kf -1)
D) (Kf +1) (Kt +1)
Answer : (A)

9 Starting from x0 = 1, one step of Newton-Raphson method in solving the equation x3 + 3x -7 = 0 gives the next value (x1) as
A) x1 = 0.5
B) x1= 1.406
C) x1= 1.5
D) x1 = 2
Answer : (C)

10 The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at
A) 103 cycles
B) 104 cycles
C) 10 6 cycles
D) 10 9 cycles
 

--
with warm regards

Harish Sati
Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Maidan Garhi, New Delhi-110068

(M) + 91 - 9990646343 | (E-mail) Harish.sati@gmail.com

 

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[Sarkari-Naukri] Job

gd morning sir,
 
i want to get information abt jobs related to libarary field (assistant librarian). 
so plz time to time send information abt these jobs
 
thanks
rgds 
ujwala


Yahoo! India has a new look. Take a sneak peek
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[Sarkari-Naukri] obc online submission

hello,
did anyone fill the online form of Oriental bank for PO post. I am
trying to do it but it is not accepting or i will say it comes to the
same page. i completed filling the form with 5 mins also.
If anyone filled it please tell me the way how to do it....
thanks
cleo

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hot honey moon couple fun in bed room 4

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hot honey moon couple fun in bed room 4
Korea Times shoot!

Korea Times shoot!
Screwed By Wal Mart II

Screwed By Wal Mart II

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Government ,Bank, PSU Jobs

Government ,Bank, PSU Jobs


Indian Institute of Science recruitment of Trainees for SERC ( Supercomputer Education and Research Centre)

Posted: 08 Oct 2009 12:44 PM PDT


Supercomputer Education and Research Centre
Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore-560 012
Advertisement Number : R1(B)008-8/2009


Applications are invited for the Position of System Administrator/Junior System Administrator Trainee Programme - February 2010
   
Job Details
    1. Junior System Administrator
    • Stipend: Rs.6,000/- per month(Consolidated)
    • Qualification :BCA/B.Sc.(Computer Science, Information Science, Information Technology)
    • Duration of Training : ONE YEAR from first working day of February 2010
    2. System Administrator
    • Stipend: Rs.7,500/- per month(Consolidated)
    • Qualification : MCA / M.Sc.(Computer Science), BE / BTech in any one of the following Disciplines: Computer Science, Information Science, Information Technology, Electronics&Communication, Electrical&Electronics, Telecommunication
    • Duration of Training : ONE YEAR from first working day of February 2010

Number of Positions : 10 (General-6, OBC-3, SC-1)

Important Dates :

Last Date of Receipt of Application : 10.11.2009

Last date for online registration : 06.11.2009

Important Links :
For Further Detail, Please view http://www.satp.serc.iisc.ernet.in/advertisement1.jsp

For Online Apply : http://www.satp.serc.iisc.ernet.in/online.jsp

Website : http://www.satp.serc.iisc.ernet.in
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IIS, Bangalore recruitment of Trainees for J.R.D. Tata Memorial Library , NCSI and APC

Posted: 08 Oct 2009 12:43 PM PDT


J.R.D. Tata Memorial Library,
National Centre For Science Information And Archives & Publications Cell
Indian Institute Of Science
Bangalore 560012
Advertisement No.R(IB)008-7/2009


Applications are invited for the position of Trainee in the J.R.D. Tata Memorial Library (Library), National Centre for Science Information (NCSI) and Archives & Publications Cell (APC).
   
Job Details
    1. Library and Information Management Trainee
    • No of Posts : 11 (Library-8, NCSI-2, APC-1)
    • Emoluments: Ist Year : Rs.7,500/- p.m. (fixed) , IInd Year : Rs.8,000/ p.m. (fixed)
    • Qualification : A Bachelor's Degree in any discipline followed by M.L.I.Sc. or Master's Degree in any discipline with B.L.I.Sc. or Associateship in documentation and information science awarded by DRTC / NISCAIR or its equivalent. The applicant should have secured a minimum of First Class or equivalent as declared by University in both Graduation and qualifying examination. In case of Honour's Degree the Institute reserves the right to decide the class obtained. SC/ST candidates with Pass Class will also be considered.
    2. Electronic Resources Management / Web Design & Management Trainee
    • No of Posts : 02 (Library)
    • Emoluments: Ist Year : Rs.7,500/- p.m. (fixed) , IInd Year : Rs.8,000/ p.m. (fixed)
    • Qualification : A bachelor's degree in Engineering/Technology in Computer Science or Electronics or Information Technology .OR. Master's degree in Computer Applications. The applicant should have secured a minimum of First Class or equivalent as declared by University in the qualifying examination. SC/ST candidates with Pass Class will also be considered.
Last date for online registration : 06.11.2009


Important Links :
For More Information and OBC caste certificate format, Please view http://www.ncsi.iisc.ernet.in/trainee/

For Online Apply : http://www.ncsi.iisc.ernet.in/trainee/register.php

Website : http://www.ncsi.iisc.ernet.in
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Walk - In Interview For Biomedical Engineers in Hll Lifecare Limited on 12.10.2009 and 22.10.2009

Posted: 08 Oct 2009 08:24 AM PDT


HLL LIFECARE LIMITED (Formerly Hindustan Latex Limited)
(A Govt. of India Enterprise)


HLL now requires Sr. Biomedical Engineer, for its Procurement& Consultancy and Diagnostics Services Divisions at Noida on Fixed Term Contract.
   
Job Details
    1. Senior Bio-Medical Engineer
    • Age : 45 yrs as on 01.09.09
    • Qualification :BE/B.Tech in Bio-medical Engineering
    • Experience : 5 yrs in planning and execution of Biomedical engineering projects
Date & Place of Interview

1. Date : 12.10.09 Time : 2.00 PM

Venue : Hll Lifecare Limited (formerly Hindustan Latex Ltd), No. B-12, Sector - 59, Gautam Budh Nagar, Noida, Uttar Pradesh - 201 301, Ph: 0120 – 4324572.

2. Date: 22.10.2009 Time : 2.00 PM

Venue : Hll Lifecare Limited (formerly Hindustan Latex Ltd), Registered & Corporate Office, Poojappura, Trivandrum-12, Ph: 0471-2354949

Vacancy Detail : http://www.lifecarehll.com/TipsnGuidesdetails.aspx?valid=1&category=0&id=2542&type=5

Website : http://www.hindlatex.com
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10 + 2 (Technical ) Cadet Entry in Indian Navy - Permanent Commission Course Jul 2010 | October 2009

Posted: 08 Oct 2009 07:23 AM PDT


The Indian Navy
10+2 (Technical ) Cadet Entry Scheme (Permanent Commission ) Course Commencing - Jul 2010


Applications are invited from Unmarried Male Candidates to join prestigious Indian Navy Academy , Ezhimala, Kerela under 10+2 (Technical ) Cadet Entry Scheme
   
Eligibility Conditions
    • Age : 17 to 19 1/2 , born between 02.01.1991 and 01.07.1993 ; both dates inclusive
    • Educational Qualification : Senior Secondary Examination (10 + 2 pattern) or its equivalent from University / Board with atleast 70% aggregate marks in Physics , Chemistry and Mathematics (PCM) and atleast 50 % marks in English (either in Class X or Class XII)
    • Physical Standards : a) Height and Weight : Minimum height - 157 cms with correlated weight as per age .
      b) Eye Sight : The minimum acceptable vision standard for distant vision 6/18, 6/18 correctable to 6/6 , 6/6 with glasses. Should not be colour / night blind.
      c) There will be no relaxation in physical standards.
Last Date for receipt of application : 09.11.2009

   Application Forms in accordance with prescribed format and complete in all respects with superscription on the envelope "APPLICATION FOR 10+2 (TECH) - JUL 2010 COURSE. Qualification ......................Percentage .......................% is to be sent to Post Bag No. 5 , GPO, New Delhi-110 001

For Further Detail and Application Form Download Please view http://www.nausena-bharti.nic.in
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NII recruitment of Documentation Officer & Senior Manager | October 2009

Posted: 08 Oct 2009 06:56 AM PDT


National Institute of Immunology
(an autonomous research institute)
Aruna Asaf Ali Marg, New Delhi -110067


The National Institute of Immunology, New Delhi invites applications from suitably qualified , dynamic , result-oriented and dedicated candidates for filling the following posts.
   
Job Details
    1. Senior Manager
    • No of Posts : 01
    • Pay Scale : PB-4 Rs. 37400-67000, Grade Pay Rs. 8,700/-
    • Age : Below 55 years for Direct Recruitment
    • Qualification : A distinguished academic record with post graduate degree in Arts / Commerce / Science / Engineering / MBA / P.G. Diploma in Management from an Institute / University of repute , with at least five years experience as Manager or equivalent , in the pre-revised scale of Rs. 12000-375-16500 (revised as Rs . 15600-39100 + 7600) or equivalent , in an orgaization of repute , having total relevant experience of 12 years in Administration in a responsible capacity
    • Mode of Recruitment : Deputaion Basis / Direct
    2. Documentation Officer
    • No of Posts : 01
    • Pay Scale : PB-3 Rs. 15600-39100, Grade Pay Rs. 6,600/-
    • Age : 40 years
    • Qualification : MA M.Com / M.Sc plus B.Lib Science with 7 years relevat experience in library / documentation / information handling , preferably in scientific technology environments
    • Mode of Recruitment : Direct Recruitment
Application Fee:Demand draft of Rs 100/- (No fee for SC/ST/PH candidates ) drawn on Canara Bank or Indian Bank payable at Delhi / New Delhi in favour of the Director, National Institute of Immunology

Last Date for receipt of application : 24.11.2009

   Interested candidates may submit their applications in the prescribed format to the Senior Manager, National Institute of Immunology, Aruna Asaf Ali Marg, New Delhi – 110067

Vacancy Detail will be available at http://202.54.226.233/jsp/

Website : www.nii.res.in
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Assistant Ambulance Officers vacancy in CATS (Centralised Accident And Trauma Services)

Posted: 08 Oct 2009 12:45 AM PDT

Centralised Accident And Trauma Services (CATS)
(An Autonomous Body of Govt. of NCT of Delhi),
Bela Road, Near Vijay Ghat, Yamuna Pusta,
Delhi - 110006


Applications are invited for the post of Assistant Ambulance Officers on contract basis in Centralised Accident Trauma Services, initially for a period of one year
   
Job Details
    1. Assistant Ambulance Officers
    • No of Posts : 63 (UR-35,SC-10, OBC-18)
    • Pay: Stipend @ Rs. 6000/- p.m. Rs. 16,500/- p.m. after successful completion of Training
    • Age : 19 years to 27 years as on 30.10.2009 ( Relaxable as per Govt. rules)
    • Qualification : 10 + 2 with Certificate Course (9 months duration) for Pre Hospital Trauma Technician (PTT), approved by Govt. of India OR Science graduate with minimum 50% marks
Last Date for receipt of application : 30.10.2009

For Vacancy Detail and Application Form Download Vacancy Detail

Website : http://www.delhi.gov.in/
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LIC India requires 188 Direct Sales Executives for Northern Zonal Office (Delhi)

Posted: 07 Oct 2009 08:06 PM PDT


Life Insurance Corporation Of India
Engagement of Direct Sales Executives


Applications are invited for the post of Direct Sales Executives for various offices of the Corporation purely on Contract basis for 3 years under the jurisdiction of Northern Zonal Office
   
Job Details
    1. Direct Sales Executives
    • No of Posts : 188
    • Pay: Rs.10000/- per month on achieving the minimum business parameters
    • Age : 21 to 35 years 01.06.2009.
    • Qualification : Bachelor's Degree of a University in India established under a statute. Preference may be given to those applicants who possess who possess the Bachelor Degree or Diploma in Marketing /Management. Good working knowledge of English and also one Regional language preferably
      local language is desirable. Knowledge of soft skills such as Power Point / Word / Excel would be additional advantage.
Last Date for receipt of application : 23.10.2009

For Vacancy Detail and Application Form Download http://www.licindia.com/pages/notification_for_DSEs_modified_%202nd_batch-DELHI.pdf

Website : http://www.licindia.com
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