MODEL QUESTION PAPER
ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE TEST (EKT) Technical Branch Indian Air Force
Part A: General Engineering
1. The probability of hitting a target from
one gun 9/10, from another gun is 7/10. If
both gun are fired at the same time, the
probability of hitting the target is
(A) 2/20 (B) 63/100
(C) 16/20 (D) 63/20
2. If the three vectors a, b and c are
coplanar , then the missed product a x b. c
is
(A) Zero (B) Non-Zero
(C) Unity (D) Non of these
3. Limit sin x is
x
→0 x (A) not defined (B) 1
(c) zero (D) -1
4. The Laplace transform of sin
23t is (A) 18 (B) 18
S(S
2+36) S2(S+36) (C) 18 (B) 18
(S+36) (S+36)(S+4)
5. The function
x
2 for x< 3 f(x)
2x+3 for x>3
(A) continuous over the entire number scale
(B) continuous at x=3 but discontinuous at
all other points
(C) discontinuous at x=3 but continuous at
all other points
(D) discontinuous everywhere
6. When a body hits an obstacle, the force
with which it hits the obstacle depends
upon its
(A) average velocity
(B) velocity at the instant of collision
(C) initial velocity
(D) all of these
7. The wavelength of visible light is of the
order of
(A) 1μm (B) 100 μm
(C) 1mm (D) 1 Å
8. Whenever a source of sound moves
towards an observer
(A) the frequency heard by the observer is
less than that of the source
(B) the frequency heard by the observer is
greater than that of the source
(C) the frequency heard by the observer is
unchanged
(D) the wavelength of sound heard is
greater than that of the sound emitted
9. Moving electric charges will interact
with
(A) electric field only
(B) magnetic field only
(C) both of these
(D) none of these
10. Gamma radiation is most similar to
(A) sound waves (B) X-ray
(C) Alpha particles (D) neutrons
11. The fundamental particle responsible
for keeping the nucleus together is
(A) meson (B) anti proton
(C) positron (D) muon
12. Air contains 21% oxygen by volume
and the rest nitrogen. If the barometer
pressure is 740 mm of Hg the partial
pressure of oxygen is close to
(A) 155 mm of Hg
(B) 310 mm of Hg
(C) 465 mm of Hg
(D) 162 mm of Hg
13. In the electrolytic cell
(A) electrical energy is converted into
chemical energy
(B) chemical energy is converted into
electrical energy
(C) mechanical energy is converted into
potential energy
(D) potential energy is converted into
kinetic energy
14. The force required to maintain a body at
constant speed in free space is equal to
(A) the mass of the body
(B) zero
(C) the weight of the body
(D) the force required to stop it
15. If the length of a spring is halved, the
spring constant becomes
(A) half (B) 1/4
th (C) double (D) four times
16. The coefficient of static friction
depends on
(A) the material of the bodies in contact
(B) the quality of surface finish of the
bodies
(C) the presence of foreign matter between
the surface
(D) all of these
17. The units of angular impulse in SI
system are
(A) Nms (B) Ns
(C) Nm/s (D) Ns/m
18. A particle is projected with a velocity
√
4gR 3 ½ ½
(A) gR (B) gR
2 3
½ ½
(C) gR (D) 2gR
3
19. Stainless steel contains iron and
(A) Chromium and nickel
(B) Chromium and carbon
(C) Nickel and carbon
(D) Chromium and manganese
20. The property of material by which it
offers resistance to scratching or
indentation is called
(A) Brittleness
(B) Hardness
(C) Toughness
(D) Resilience
21. The failure of a material due to repeated
stressing is known as
(A) Creep
(B) Fracture
(C) Fatigue
(D) Brittle Fracture
22. The electric device which blocks DC
but allows AC is called
(A) Capacitor
(B) Inductor
(C) Amplifier
(D) Transducer
23. When a charge is moved from one point
to another in an electric field, the work
done is
(A) independent of the path
(B) zero along the direction of the field
(C) measured in Joules per metre
(D) measure in Volt per metre
24. A capacitor with lowest leakage is
(A) Paper (B) Ceramic
(C) Polyester (D) Mica
25. A zener diode operates
(A) In an extremely high forward bias
(B) In an extremely low reverse bias
(C) In an extremely low forward bias
(D) In a reverse bias higher than laid down
voltage
26. The specific gravity of a lead acid cell
is often used as a measure of its
(A) Rate of discharge
(B) Operating temperature
(C) State of charge
(D) Life expectancy
27. An uniformly distributed load is one
which
(A) Acts at a point on a beam
(B) Spreads uniformly over the whole
length of a beam
(C) Varies uniformly over the whole length
of a beam
(D) loads the beam from one end only
28. A steam engine device which keeps the
speed of the engine, all loads, constant is
known as
(A) Flywheel
(B) Eccentric
(C) Connecting rod
(D) Governor
29. The refrigerant hiving the lowest
freezing point is
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Freon – 11
(D) Freon – 22
30. Heat and work are
(A) Path functions
(B) Properties of a substance
(C) Point functions
(D) Absolute units
PART B-1 AE (M): MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
1. An impulse turbine
(A) Makes use of a draft tube
(B) Always operates submerged
(C) Converts the pressure head into velocity
head through the vanes
(D) Is most suited for low head installations
2. Power required to drive a centrifugal
pump is directly proportional to
(A) Diameter of its impeller
(B) Square of diameter of its impeller
(C) Cube of diameter of its impeller
(D) Fourth power of diameter of its
impeller
3. The locus of the common point on the
two meshing spur gears is known as
(A) Addendum circle
(B) Duodenum circle
(C) Pitch circle
(D) Base circle
4. When there is a reduction in amplitude
over every cycle of vibration then the body
is said to have
(A) Free vibration
(B) Forced vibration
(C) Damped vibration
(D) Natural vibration
5. For machining at high speed the tool
material should have
(A) Wear resistance
(B) Red hardness
(C) Toughness
(D) All of these
6. MIG welding is
(A) A gas welding process
(B) An electric resistance welding process
(C) A electric resistance welding process
(D) A forge welding process involving high
temperatures and low pressures
7. The ability of sand to permit the metal to
shrink when it solidifies is known is
(A) Plasticity (B) Permeability
(C) Collapsibility (D) Cohesiveness
8. Rivets are generally specified by
(A) Overall length
(B) Shank diameter
(C) Thickness of plates to be jointed
(D) Diameter of head
9. Which of the following is steady flow
compressor
(A) Reciprocating compressor
(B) Centrifugal compressor
(C) Voot blower
(D) Vane blower
10. A closed cycle gas turbine works on
(A) Carnot cycle (B) Rankine cycle
(C) Brayton cycle (D) Joule cycle
11. Thermal conductivity of solid metals
(A) Decreases with rise in temperature
(B) Does not vary with temperature
(C) Increases with rise in temperature
(D) Remains constant with rise in
temperature
12. During adiabatic saturation process, air
property which remains constant, is known
as
(A) Wet bulb temperature
(B) Dry bulb temperature
(C) Relative humidity
(D) Specific humidity
13. Bell-Coleman cycle as applied to
refrigeration operates
(A) On open air system
(B) On vapour compression system
(C) On vapour absorption system
(D) On none of these
14. The gears in which axes of the shaft
connected by them, intersect, are known as
(A) Spur gears (B) Bevel gears
(C) Spiral gears (D) Gear train
15. Shot peening
(A) Is done at re-crystallization temperature
(B) Changes the crystalline structure at
materials
(C) Improves the fatigue life of small parts
(D) Refines the grain structure
16. In a bomb calorimeter the heat released
by the fuel is absorbed by
(A) Atmospheric air
(B) Water
(C) Metal container
(D) Bomb, water and metal container
17. Nitriding is done
(A) On low carbon steels only
(B) To impart blue colour to steels
(C) To improve machinability
(D) To increase surface hardness
18. The extent of cold work that a metal can
withstand depends on
(A) Purity of metal
(B) Carbon percentage
(C) Ductility
(D) Room temperature
19. Which engine has the highest air fuel
ratio
(A) Petrol engine (B) Gas engine
(C) Diesel engine (D) Gas turbine
20. Annealing of steels is done to
(A) Remove internal stresses
(B) Produce soft core under hard surface
(C) Produce hard core under soft surface
(D) Introduce capacity to withstand shocks
PART B-2 AE (M): AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING
1. What mass of lead (sp gr = 11) will
weigh as much as 8 gram of iron
(Sp gr = 8) when both are immersed in
water
(A) 7.7 gram (B) 8.8 gram
(C) 10.0 gram (D) 1.1 gram
2. Which of the two forces are important in
floating bodies
(A) inertial, pressure
(B) buoyancy, gravity
(C) gravity, inertial
(D) pressure, viscous
3. A dimensionless number which is a ratio
of kinematics viscosity to thermal
diffusivity is known as
(A) Prandtl Number
(B) Nusselt Number
(C) Reynold's Number
(D) Stanton Number
4. Ozone is an
(A) isomer of oxygen
(B) allotrope of oxygen
(C) isobar of oxygen
(D) isotope of oxygen
5. Within a carburetor the velocity of air is
maximum at
(A) inlet
(B) outlet
(C) venture
(D) does not change within a carburetor
6. A 50 Kg mass is accelerated from rest to
50 m/s. The force on it is
(A) 500 N
(B) 2,500 N
(C) 512 N
(D) Can not be determined from the given
data
7. In vacuum the velocity of light depends
on
(A) none of the following
(B) frequency
(C) temperature
(D) pressure
8. The source of solar energy is
(A) nuclear fission / fusion
(B) electromagnetic radiation
(C) chemical energy
(D) burning of hydrogen
9. The pressure of a real gas is less than the
pressure of an ideal gas because of
(A) increase in the number of
intermolecular collisions
(B) higher energy possessed by the
molecules than the theoretical estimates
(C) inter-molecular forces
(D) finite size of molecules
10. Which of the following is
dimensionless
(A) young's modulus of elasticity
(B) stress (C) strain
(D) shear stress
11. Which of the following relations is
incorrect
One atmospheric pressure is nearly equal to
(A) 1013 bar
(B) 1013250 dynes/cm
2 (C) 1.033kgf/cm
2 (D) 735 mm of Hg
12. Which of the following is a scalar
quantity
(A) velocity of a gear
(B) acceleration of a car
(C) force in friction
(D) area of a triangle
13. The Mach number at inlet of a gas
turbine diffuser is 0.3. The shape of the
diffuser would be
(A) converging (B) diverging
(C) diverging – converging
(D) converging – diverging
14. For adiabatic expansion with friction
through a nozzle, the following remains
constant
(A) entropy (B) static enthalpy
(C) stagnation enthalpy
(D) stagnation pressure
15. Separation of flow is caused by
(A) reduction of pressure in the direction
flow
(B) decrease in the boundary layer
thickness
(C) increase of pressure in the direction of
flow
(D) adverse pressure gradient
16. A pilot tube senses
(A) stagnation pressure
(B) average pressure
(C) maximum pressure
(D) velocity head pressure
17. Which of the following materials has
the higher value of Poisson' ratio
(A) rubber (B) copper
(C) steel (D) concrete
18. During forced vertex flow
(A) velocity increases with radius
(B) velocity decreases with radius
(C) fluid rotates as a composite solid
(D) inertial forces are significant
19. Hooke's law is valid within the limits of
proportionality. The limit of proportionality
depends on
(A) type of loading
(B) area of cross section
(C) type of material
(D) hardness of material
20. Euler's equation of fluid motion can be
integrated when it is assumed that
(A) the fluid is incompressible
(B) Bernoulli's equation is satisfied
(C) flow is rotational
(D) velocity potential exits and the density
is constant
PART B-3 AE (L): ELECTRICAL, ELECTRONICS AND INSTRUMENTATION
1. In order for a 30 volt, 90 watt lamp to
work properly in a 120 volt supply the
required series resister in ohm is
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40
2. According to Theremin's theorem, any
linear active network can be replaced by a
single voltage source
(A) in series with a single impedance
(B) in parallel with a single impedance
(C) in series with two impedances
(D) in parallel with two impedances
3. The internal resistance of ammeter is
(A) very small (B) very high
(C) infinite (D) zero
4. Hay bridge is used mainly for the
measurement of
(A) resistance (B) inductance
(C) conductance (D) capacitance
5. Which of the following is true about
series resonance
(A) The reactance becomes zero and
impedance becomes equal to resistance
(B) The current in the circuit becomes
maximum
(C) The voltage drop across inductance and
capacitance cancels each other
(D) All of the above statements are correct
6. A 3-
Ф, 4 wire, 400/230 v feeder supplies 3-phase motor and an unbalanced lighting
load. In this system
(A) all four wires will carry equal current
(B) neutral wire will carry no current
(C) neutral wire will carry both motor
current and lighting load current
(D) neutral wire will carry current only
when lighting load is switched on
7. Equalizing connections are required
when paralleling two
(A) alternators
(B) compound generators
(C) series generators
(D) both (B) and (C)
8. An ideal transformer is one which
(A) has a common core for its primary and
secondary windings
(B) has no losses and magnetic leakage
(C) has core of stainless steel and windings
of pure copper metal
(D) has interleaved primary and secondary
windings
9. The principle of operation of a 3-phase
induction motor is most similar to that of a
(A) synchronous motor
(B) repulsion-start induction motor
(C) transformer with a shorted secondary
(D) capacitor-start, induction-run motor
10. In the forward region of its
characteristic, a diode appears as
(A) an OFF switch
(B) a high resistance
(C) a capacitor
(D) an ON switch
11. The common-emitter forward
amplification factor
βdc is given by (A) I
C/IE (B) IC/Ib (C) I
E/IC (D) IB/IF 12. A common emitter amplifier is
characterized by
(A) low voltage gain
(B) moderate power gain
(C) signal phase reversal
(D) very high output impedance
13. After V
DS reaches pinch-off value VP in a JFET, drain current I
O becomes (A) zero (B) low
(C) saturated (D) reversed
14. An electronic oscillator
(A) needs an external input
(B) provides its own input
(C) is nothing but an amplifier
(D) is just a dc/ac converter
15. In an SCR, the function of the gate is to
(A) switch it off
(B) control its firing
(C) make it unidirectional
(D) reduce forward breakdown voltage
16. NAND and NOR gates are called
'universal' gates primarily because they
(A) are available everywhere
(B) are widely used in IC packages
(C) can be combined to produce AND, OR
and NOT gates
(D) are the easiest to manufacture
17. Registers and counters are similar in the
sense that they both
(A) count pulses
(B) store binary information
(C) are made from an array of flip-flops and
gates integrated on a single chip
(D) are in fact shift register
18. A flip-flop
(A) is a sequential logic device
(B) is a combinational logic device
(C) remembers what was previously stored
in it
(D) both (A) and (C)
19. An operational amplifier
(A) can be used to sum two or more signals
(B) can be used to subtract two or more
signals
(C) uses to principle of feed back
(D) all of the above
20. TTL logic is preferred to DRL logic
because
(A) greater fan-out is possible
(B) greater logic levels are possible
(C) greater fan-in is possible
(D) less power consumption is possible
PART B-4 AE (L): ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATIONS
1. In a communication system, noise is
most likely to get into the system
(A) at the transmitter
(B) in the channel
(C) in the information source
(D) at the destination
2. When modulation frequency is doubled,
the modulation index is halved, and the
modulating voltage remains constant, the
modulation system is
(A) amplitude modulation
(B) phase modulation
(C) frequency modulation
(D) angle modulation
3. Impedance inversion may be obtained
with
(A) a short – circuited stub
(B) an open – circuited stub
(C) a quarter – wave line
(D) a half – wave line
4. HIGH frequency waves are
(A) observed by the F
2 layer (B) reflected by D layer
(C) capable of use for long-distance
communication on the moon
(D) affected by the solar cycle
5. Which one of the following terms does
not apply to the Yagi-uda array
(A) Good band width
(B) Parasitic elements
(C) Folded diploe
(D) High gain
6. A duplexer is used
(A) to couple two different antennae to a
transmitter without mutual interference
(B) to allow one antenna to be used for
reception or transmission without mutual
interference
(C) to prevent interference between two
antennae when they are connected to
receiver
(D) to increase the speed of the pulses in
pulsed radar
7. Indicate which of the following system is
digital
(A) Pulse – Position modulation
(B) Pulse – Code modulation
(C) Pulse – Width modulation
(D) Pulse – Frequency modulation
8. A forward error correcting code corrects
errors only
(A) requiring partial retransmission of the
signal
(B) requiring retransmission of entire signal
(C) using parity to correct to errors in all
cases
(D) requiring no part of the signal to be
transmitted
9. A typical signal strength received from a
geosynchronous communication satellite is
of the order of
(A) a few milli watts
(B) kilo watts (C) watts
(D) few pico watts
10. Telephone traffic is measured
(A) with echo cancellers
(B) by the relative congestion
(C) in terms of the grade of service
(D) in erlangs
11. Positive logic in a logic circuit is one in
which
(A) logic 0 and 1 are represented by 0 and
positive voltage respectively
(B) logic 0 and 1 are represented by
negative and positive voltages respectively
(C) logic 0 voltage level in higher than
logic 1 voltage level
(D) logic 0 voltage level is lower than logic
1 voltage level
12. A half-adder can be made from
(A) two NAND gates
(B) a NOT gate and an OR gate
(C) an AND gate and an OR gate
(D) an AND gate and an X-OR gate
13. Which of the following devices has its
characteristics very close to that of an ideal
current source.
(A) Field effect transistor
(B) Transistor in common bas mode
(C) Zener diode
(D) MOSFET
14. The main use of a common base
transistor amplifier is
(A) as voltage amplifier
(B) current amplifier
(C) for matching a high source impedance
to a low load impedance
(D) for rectification of a.c. signal
15. A class-B amplifier is biased
(A) Just at cut-off
(B) nearly twice cut-off
(C) at mid point of load line
(D) so that I
B equals jut IC 16. If the peak transmitted power in a radar
system is increased by a factor of 16, the
maximum range will be increased by a
factor of
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16
17. A high PRF will (indicate the false
statement)
(A) make the returned echoes easier to
distinguish from noise
(B) make target tracking easier with conical
scanning
(C) increase the maximum range
(D) have no effect of the range resolution
18. A solution to the "blind speed" problem
in a radar system is to
(A) change the Doppler frequency
(B) vary the PRF
(C) use mono pulse
(D) use MTI
19. The number of active picture elements
in a television image depends on
(A) fly back time
(B) CRT screen size
(C) received band width
(D) FB ratio of receiver antenna
20. In a colour TV, the three primary
colours are
(A) red, orange and blue
(B) red, blue and green
(C) red, green and yellow
(D) red, orange and green
PART B-5 AE (L): COMPUTER ENGINEERING
1. A logic gate is an electronic circuit
which
(A) makes logic decision
(B) allows electron flow only in one
direction
(C) works on binary algebra
(D) alternates between 0 and 1 values
2. NAND and NOR gates are called
'universal' gates primarily because they
(A) are available everywhere
(B) are widely used in IC packages
(C) can be combined to produce AND, OR
and NOT gates
(D) are the easiest to manufacture
3. The ascending order of a data hierarchy
is:
(A) bit-byte-record-field-file-data base
(B) byte-bit-field-record-file
(C) byte-bit-record-field-file-data base
(D) bit-byte-field-record -file-data base
4. A dumb terminal can do nothing more
than communicate data to and from a CPU
of a computer. How does a 'smart' terminal
differ from dumb terminal
(A) it has a primary memory
(B) it has a cache memory
(C) it has a micro processor
(D) it has an input device
5. The main distinguishing features of fifth
generation digital computer will be
(A) liberal use of micro processors
(B) artificial intelligence
(C) extremely low cost
(D) versatility
6. Which of the following terms is not used
to refer to the recording density of a disk
(A) mega-density (B) single-density
(C) double-density (D) quad-density
7. The two kinds of main memory are
(A) primary and secondary
(B) random and sequential
(C) ROM and RAM
(D) central and peripheral
8. Which one of the following is not an
octal number
(A) 29 (B) 75 (C) 16 (D) 102
9. Main problem with LCDs is that they are
very difficult to read
(A) directly
(B) in bright light
(C) in dull light
(D) both (B) and (C)
10. Both computer instructions and memory
addresses are represented by
(A) character codes
(B) binary codes
(C) binary word
(D) parity bit
11. A computer program that converts an
entire program into machine language at
one time is called a/an
(A) interpreter (B) simulator
(C) compiler (D) commander
12. All the keys on the IBM PC key board
repeat as long as we hold them down. Such
type of keys are known as
(A) typematic keys
(B) functional keys
(C) automatic keys
(D) alphabetic keys
13. What does the acronym ISDN stands
for
(A) Indian Standard Digital Network
(B) Integrated Services Digital Network
(C) Intelligent Service Digital Network
(D) Integrated Services Data Network
14. Two basic types of operating system are
(A) sequential and direct
(B) batch and time sharing
(C) direct and interactive
(D) batch and interactive
15. Which of the following entity does not
belong to word processing
(A) characters (B) words
(C) cells (D) paragraphs
16. A schema describes
(A) data elements
(B) records and filer
(C) record relationship
(D) all of the above
17. Which of the following is not a tool
used to manage and control schedule
performance
(A) CAD (B) PERT
(C) CPM (D) Gantt Chart
18. An expert system differs from a data
base program in that only an expert system
(A) contains declarative knowledge
(B) contains procedural knowledge
(C) features the retrieval of stored
information
(D) experts users to draw own conclusion
19. The virtual memory addressing
capability of 80386 is
(A) 4 GB (B) 16 GB
(C) 64 GB (D) 64 TB
20. The 80486 microprocessor from Intel
consists of
(A) a fast 32 bit CPU but no coprocessor
(B) a 32 bit CPU and an 80387 coprocessor
only
(C) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor and
memory management unit (MMU) only
(D) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor,
memory management unit and a cache
memory
--
with warm regards
Harish Sati
Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Maidan Garhi, New Delhi-110068
(M) + 91 - 9990646343 | (E-mail)
Harish.sati@gmail.com --~--~---------~--~----~------------~-------~--~----~
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